Ok we have a hypothetical situation, a couple, person A and person B (don't limit yourself to one person or the other being male or female, or perhaps they are both male or both female) are fooling around. A says to be "no" or some other indication to B to stop. B may slow down, or not acknowledge the sign at all, but the fooling around progresses. A continues, despite not feeling it is consensual, and lets B continue to do things to A. It leads to sexual intercourse, A may even enjoy it even, but still doesn't feel ok about it. Now, the only indication that A gave that A was not consenting of the intimacy was at the beginning, A gave no further indications that A felt wrong about it. Was this rape? Did B commit rape?
The strict definition of rape is that for one person it isn't consensual. But, is it not also a matter of communicating that one is not consenting? Certainly B should've stopped when A said no. But from then on A made no more indications that A was against the act of sex. A, might even have felt and expressed some enjoyment out of it, but in the end still felt it was against what A thought was right. Can A then level the charge of rape against B? A was letting B do things to A, other than the one sign of resistance. Was it A's resposibility to continue to resist if A felt it was wrong? Is being passive to the point of letting B do things to A and A showing no sign of resistance, a valid reason for B to feel that A is consenting?
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